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The EastMed gas: Paving the way for prosperity or more disastrous regional conflicts?

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    • proIsrael-nonIsraeli

    proIsrael-nonIsraeli

    Legendary Member
    Rafidi said:
    This will create a huge problem. There is no "P" in Arabic. 😄 P is pronounced as B. So it would be rendered into BATO. Just like Pepsi is pronounced as Bebsi.
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    Yes, I know - just like Arabs cannot pronounce Greek name "Palestina".
     
    Rafidi

    Rafidi

    Legendary Member
    proIsrael-nonIsraeli said:
    Yes, I know - just like Arabs cannot pronounce Greek name "Palestina".
    Click to expand...
    Palestine is better pronounced. It becomes Falastin and very much compatible with the Arabic language, unlike Bebsi.

    On the etymology of the word "Palestine" from Wikipedia:

    The term "Palestine" (in Latin, Palæstina) is thought to have been a term coined by the Ancient Greeks for the area of land occupied by the Philistines, although there are other explanations.[36]

    The English term Philistine comes from Old French Philistin; from Classical Latin Philistinus; from Late Greek Philistinoi; ultimately from Hebrew Pəlištî (פלשתי‎; plural Pəlištîm, פלשתים‎), meaning 'person of Pəlešeth [פלשת‎]'; and there are cognates in Akkadian Palastu and Egyptian Palusata;[11] the term Palestine has the same derivation.[12]

    The Hebrew term Plištim occurs 286 times in the Masoretic Text of the Hebrew Bible (of which 152 times are in 1 Samuel). It also appears in the Samaritan Pentateuch.[13] In the Greek version of the Bible, called Septuagint, the equivalent term Phylistiim occurs 12 times, again in the Pentateuch.[14]

    In secondary literature, "Philistia" is further mention in the Aramaic Visions of Amram (4Q543-7), which is dated "prior to Antiochus IV and the Hasmonean revolt," possibly to the time of High Priest of Israel Onias II; Jubilees 46:1-47:1 might have used Amram as a source.[15]

    Outside of pre-Maccabean Israelite religious literature, evidence for the name and the origins of the Philistines is less abundant and less consistent. In the remainder of the Hebrew Bible, ha-Plištim is attested at Qumran for 2 Samuel 5:17.[16] In the Septuagint, however, 269 references instead use the term allophylos ('of another tribe').[6]
     
    proIsrael-nonIsraeli

    proIsrael-nonIsraeli

    Legendary Member
    Rafidi said:
    Palestine is better pronounced. It becomes Falastin and very much compatible with the Arabic language, unlike Bebsi.
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    Indeed - Palestina becomes Falastin and Pepsi becomes Bebsi.
     
    Rafidi

    Rafidi

    Legendary Member
    proIsrael-nonIsraeli said:
    Indeed - Palestina becomes Falastin and Pepsi becomes Bebsi.
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    Just like Jabal Tarek is now Gibraltar.

    Balad al Walid is now Valladolid.

    Munchen is Munich.

    In conclusion, it doesn really mean anything how languages or adopted languages pronounce foreign or new words or pre existing words.

    What is of note though, in the discussion you have opened is the fact that the names of Philistine/Palestine predated the ancient kingdom of Israel and is more original.
     
    proIsrael-nonIsraeli

    proIsrael-nonIsraeli

    Legendary Member
    O Brother said:
    Ya exactly this is why the Phi letter is used but you were assuming that the original name of Philistine was Pilistine!

    Either way this is not our topic..
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    There is no letter "Phi" in Greek alphabet.
    As to topic - I'm not the one who started it, but you feel free to ignore it.
     
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